I still don’t understand how modifying contracts that already exist without written consent from the other party is even legal. I mean, isn’t the whole point of a contract to enforce the conditions of an agreement? If one side can just change it willy-nilly, doesn’t that kind of defeat the whole purpose of a contract in the first place?
Seriously, if someone more legal-minded could explain this, that would be fantastic.
And stop unilaterally, retroactively modifying contracts.
I still don’t understand how modifying contracts that already exist without written consent from the other party is even legal. I mean, isn’t the whole point of a contract to enforce the conditions of an agreement? If one side can just change it willy-nilly, doesn’t that kind of defeat the whole purpose of a contract in the first place?
Seriously, if someone more legal-minded could explain this, that would be fantastic.