In the Lakers vs. Kings game, Lebron just got fouled on a play right at the halftime buzzer.
They ruled a foul at 0.2 seconds left on the clock, as he was going up. He missed the shot attempt AND the ball was still in his hands when the clock expired.
However, if he made it, would it count as an and-1? (Despite the clock expiring)
Chronologically it was:
Possession -> foul at 0.2 seconds remaining -> clock expiration (with ball in his hands still) -> shot attempt
Maybe it’s a dumb fucking question because I’m high right now. But… aren’t all and-1 plays essentially dead-ball possessions (with the dead-ball in effect the moment the foul is determined). Therefore, does it matter if there is or is not any time left on the clock? It’s a dead ball regardless, right? So in the above scenario, does a hypothetical made continuation basket, after the foul call, and after the expiration of the shot clock, count?
reading the NBA rulebook, 13 II e at https://official.nba.com/rule-no-13-instant-replay/ seems to be where the answer lies, specifically parts 4 and 5:
> 4. For a called foul that is committed on or by a player in the act of shooting:
whether the foul occurred prior to the expiration of actual time; or
whether the shooter released the ball prior to the expiration of actual time if the foul occurred after the expiration of actual time.
> 5. If the shot was timely, whether the successful field goal was scored correctly as a 2-point or 3-point field goal or, in the case of a shooting foul, whether the shooter fouled was attempting a 2-point or 3-point field goal.
What this seems to imply is that, in order to get continuation, the shot still has to be out of the shooter’s hand before 0:00. If they’re fouled before that but don’t get the shot up, it’s not a “timely shot” – it’s a foul before time expired, and would be a 2 shot foul, but not a make. (I am not an actual rules expert, I’m just trying to make sense of what I’m reading, and I *think* this is the correct take.)