Capitalism, like many philosophies, is a response to a previous system eg Marx was responding to Smith’s works, Mussolini was responding to Marxists etc. Capitalism’s notion that the ideal involvement of the state in private enterprise should be limited was not a commonly held view until the later 1700s.
Mercantilism was the popular system of the time and it featured a lot of direct involvement from the crown.
That’s just a more complicated way of you stating you do not understand what imperialism is as that is absolutely not just a capitalist thing eg The USSR.
If we exclude mixed economies and state capitalist countries we are left with basically looking at historic record so let’s do that.
There were recessions in 15the century England, not a capitalist economy at all! There was also a recession in Rome in 33 AD as well if you want to look back further. This is just from 5 minutes of googling.
It is not possible to have an economy that never contracts, just to have one where it happens nowhere near as frequently as our current systems and with far better outcomes for most people.
Moving the goalposts? Still possible the UK in 1706 was in a massive recession as a result if the war with France. Neither country would be capitalist at the time and were mercantilist.
You can just admit that you have no idea what a recession is and made an inaccurate comment because of that ignorance.
I would if it were true. Recessions occur with economic markets. All economies in the world today use some form of capitalism. Either state run or mixed. Therefore, I still stand by my statement. If you can find a current example of a recession occurring in a non capitalist country, I will humbly apologize. I don’t have to be correct. But I’m not going to bow while you denigrate a correct statement.
Edit: After discussing this with my son, he said I’m wrong. So I’m sorry and apologize. I didn’t specify the present in my comment. That’s what I meant. But I understand that historically there have been other economies with recessions.
Edit 2: It seems my apology was premature. After further reading, I found the term was coined in 1929. Which places it firmly under, you guessed it- capitalism.
The sense of “temporary decline in economic activity” was a fall-of-1929 coinage, probably a noun of action from recess.
Before then, economic declines were called financial disaster or slumps.
You’re late. Another user did what you couldn’t. I took the L, but not from you.
I’m gonna break it down for future reference… My statement:
Funny how recessions only exist under capitalism.
The other user moved the goalposts by bringing in non-capitalist countries. I excluded mixed economies and state run capitalism because that is still capitalism. They had to reach back in history to find examples. Those examples were:
Not capitalist.
We’re not recessions. Because the term did not exist yet.
So my statement was still true.
Another user gave good examples when recessions did exist. Those examples were socialist (albeit some could be considered mixed economies).
This makes my statement fallacious, and therefore, an L. This is not about my feelings, or winning and losing. It’s about logic and truth.
Also, from a Linguistics professor:
“‘It’s just semantics’ is a common retort people use when arguing their point. What they mean is that their argument or opinion is more valid than the other person’s. It’s a way to be dismissive of language itself as carrier for ideas. It implies that ideas and arguments can be separated from the words and phrases used to encode those ideas. The irony, of course, is that the words and phrases we use are the ideas. There is no way to communicate a complex argument or message without language. Language and thought are completely interconnected. In fact, words shape concepts and can lead to drastically different understandings of the same thing. For example, inheritance taxes can be called ‘death taxes’ or ‘estate taxes.’ These two political phrases frame the same tax law in drastically different ways. Semantics really matters.”
Name one. Excluding mixed economies and state run capitalist countries.
Then no country meets your criteria. Such a clever way of moving the goal post.
The UK in 1706. It predates capitalism and the economy tanked by ~15% as the result if war with France.
Yes they moved the goalposts and they still managed to be wrong.
Well, fancy that.
Anywho… for a second there I thought your instance was @redhat.com
Still not wrong. And this isn’t Linux
No 100% wrong and so wrong your source backs it up.
Yeah, no. It was coined in 1929, under capitalism. I was right. Before they were called financial disasters or slumps.
Which mean the same thing. You cannot be this dense.
It’s semantics, but you challenged my comment. I did the research and proved you wrong. Recessions didn’t occur until 1929. Google it.
How does something predate capitalism? I feel like capitalism happened as soon as one ape had something another didn’t.
Capitalism, like many philosophies, is a response to a previous system eg Marx was responding to Smith’s works, Mussolini was responding to Marxists etc. Capitalism’s notion that the ideal involvement of the state in private enterprise should be limited was not a commonly held view until the later 1700s.
Mercantilism was the popular system of the time and it featured a lot of direct involvement from the crown.
Since late stage capitalism is imperialism 3.0, I wonder if it still counts. 🤔
That’s just a more complicated way of you stating you do not understand what imperialism is as that is absolutely not just a capitalist thing eg The USSR.
I meant currently, today, not historically.
Talk about moving goalposts. Mixed economies include capitalist markets.
That wasn’t a “recession,” they called it an Economic Slump. Source:.
Your source describes it as a depression which is an extended recession. No system always grows.
Don’t move the goalposts. My comment said “recessions.”
Found one Jangmadang. Maybe. The recently started allowing markets. The goalposts are stationary, it’s the earth that moves. Lol
If we exclude mixed economies and state capitalist countries we are left with basically looking at historic record so let’s do that.
There were recessions in 15the century England, not a capitalist economy at all! There was also a recession in Rome in 33 AD as well if you want to look back further. This is just from 5 minutes of googling.
It is not possible to have an economy that never contracts, just to have one where it happens nowhere near as frequently as our current systems and with far better outcomes for most people.
That wasn’t a “recession.” They called it the Great Slump. (source).
“The Great Slump was an economic depression” the first paragraph on that Wikipedia page once you fix your link.
My comment concerns recessions. Which was coined in 1929. It is semantic. But I’m defending the truth of my comment.
Whatever helps you sleep at night I suppose
Thanks, I was making an offhand indictment of capitalism controlling most all market economies in the world.
Moving the goalposts? Still possible the UK in 1706 was in a massive recession as a result if the war with France. Neither country would be capitalist at the time and were mercantilist.
You can just admit that you have no idea what a recession is and made an inaccurate comment because of that ignorance.
I would if it were true. Recessions occur with economic markets. All economies in the world today use some form of capitalism. Either state run or mixed. Therefore, I still stand by my statement. If you can find a current example of a recession occurring in a non capitalist country, I will humbly apologize. I don’t have to be correct. But I’m not going to bow while you denigrate a correct statement.
Edit: After discussing this with my son, he said I’m wrong. So I’m sorry and apologize. I didn’t specify the present in my comment. That’s what I meant. But I understand that historically there have been other economies with recessions.
Edit 2: It seems my apology was premature. After further reading, I found the term was coined in 1929. Which places it firmly under, you guessed it- capitalism.
Before then, economic declines were called financial disaster or slumps.
Disaster and slumps are other terms for extended negative growth.
Did I say “disaster,” “slumps” or “extended negative growth?”
Don’t play semantics. Take the L.
You’re late. Another user did what you couldn’t. I took the L, but not from you.
I’m gonna break it down for future reference… My statement:
The other user moved the goalposts by bringing in non-capitalist countries. I excluded mixed economies and state run capitalism because that is still capitalism. They had to reach back in history to find examples. Those examples were:
So my statement was still true.
Another user gave good examples when recessions did exist. Those examples were socialist (albeit some could be considered mixed economies).
This makes my statement fallacious, and therefore, an L. This is not about my feelings, or winning and losing. It’s about logic and truth.
Also, from a Linguistics professor: